|
01. When does Reserve Bank of India issue
annual policy statement?
a)
January; b) April; c) July; d) October; e) None
of the above
02. Which of the following has been
renamed as “Annual Policy Statement” by the Reserve Bank of India?
a)
Busy season banking policy; b) slack season
banking policy; c) monetary and credit policy; d) annual statistical report;
e)
none of the above
03. When does RBI review its annual policy
statement?
a)
July; b) October; c) January; d) all the
above; e) None of the above
04. Which is the monitoring and reviewing
authority regarding fair practices code as per recent annual policy statement
of Reserve Bank of India?
a)
Banking codes and standards Board of India;
b) Banking Ombudsman; c) Institute for development in banking technology; d)
debt recovery tribunal; e) none of the above
05. Which committee has recommended
introduction of smart card?
a) Rangarajan committee; b) Saraf
committee; c) Nayak committee; d) Pannirselvan committee; e) None of the above
06. Which committee had formulated
consultative profile in connection with electronic funds transfer?
a)
A.K. Purwar committee; b) Y V Reddy
committee; c) K S Shere committee; d) S. A. Dave committee; e) none of the
above
07. The process of transformation of
physical shares, commercial paper or certificate of deposit into electronic
form is called as:
a)
Electronic clearing service; b) electronic
securitization; c) truncation; d) dematerialisation; e) none of the above
08. Providing banking services to a
customer without his entrance in the bank’s branch is called as:
a)
Virtual banking; b) relationship banking;
c) universal banking; d) mobile banking; e) none of the above
09. Where is the headquarters of “Society
for worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication – SWIFT”?
a)
New York; b) Los Angels; c) Brussels; d)
Hague; e) None of the above
10. Where has National Financial Switch of
IDRBT established?
a)
Mumbai; b) New Delhi; c) Hyderabad; d)
Bangalore; e) None of the above
11. Cheque truncation means:
a)
Tearing a cheque into two or more pieces;
b) sending the photostat copy of a cheque in collection; c) using the electronic
image of a cheque; d) keeping the Photostat copy of a cheque with collecting
bank before sending the original cheque to the drawee branch; e) none of the
above
12. What do you mean by universal banking?
a)
Provision of all financial services in one
country; b) provision of all financial services in one bank; c) provision of
all financial services at a branch; d) provision of all financial services at
any of the counters of a branch of a bank; e) none of the above
13. Corporate governance is a system
a)
By which a company is directed and
controlled; b) in which Board of directors is responsible for conduct of a
company; c) both the above; d) governing corporate companies by the government;
e) none of the above
14. Whose interest is kept in mind in a
good corporate governance system?
a)
Shareholders of the company; b)
stakeholders of the company; c) employees of the company; d) all the above; e)
none of the above
15. What do you mean by risk?
a)
Loss; b) depreciation of capital; c)
decrease in profitability; d) possible loss that depends upon occurrence and
non occurrence of an incident; e) none of the above
16. The employees of the bank went on
strike and when it comes to risk what do you mean by this?
a)
Operational risk; b) employee risk; c)
credit risk; d) market risk; e) systemic risk
17. Basel II accord is mostly concerned
with:
a)
Central vigilance commission; b) non
performing assets; c) capital adequacy ratio; d) foreign direct investment; e)
none of the above
18. A bank is unable to pay its short term
deposits because the bank’s funds are blocked in long term investment. The risk
derived in this case is known is:
a)
Market risk; b) operational risk; c)
liquidity risk; d) interest rate risk; e) none of the above
19. A bank recently introduced a new
deposit scheme which was not popular amongst the public and what do you mean by
the risk associated with
this?
a)
Operations risk; b) credit risk; c)
liquidity risk; d) market risk; e) none of the above
20. The Assets Liabilities committee in a
bank makes the assessment of:
a)
Liquidity risk; b) credit risk; c)
operations risk; d) all the above; e) none of the above
21. A debtor makes default in repayment of
a bank loan and which type of risk is this for a lending bank?
a)
Liquidity risk; b) operational risk; c)
interest rate risk; d) credit risk; e) none of the above
22. Which type of risk arises before a
bank that trades in government securities?
a)
Liquidity risk; b) market risk; c) credit
risk; d) trade risk; e) none of the above
23. Which of the following options best
defines the risk?
a)
Loss occurred due to happening of an event
b)
Loss occurred due to non happening of an
event
c)
Risk arised due to uncertainty
d)
Probability of loss due to uncertainty
e)
None of the above
24. Which of the following is not included
in three pillars of BASEL capital accord?
a)
Minimum capital requirement; b) supervisory
review; c) market discipline; d) core banking solution; e) none of the above
25. When
ICICI Limited merged with ICICI bank?
a)
1st August, 2000; b) 1st
August 2001; c) 1st August, 2002; d) 1st August, 2003; e)
none of the above
26. Bank of Madura Limited was merged
with:
a)
ICICI bank limited; b) UTI bank limited; c)
HDFC bank limited; d) IDBI bank’ e) none of the above
27. Which bank has changed its name to
AXIS bank limited?
a)
Centurion bank; b) Times bank; c) Bank of
Punjab Limited; d) Bank of Karad; e) UTI bank limited
28. Bank of Cochin was merged with:
a)
Punjab National Bank; b) Bank of Baroda; c)
State Bank of India; d) Canara Bank; e) United Commercial bank
29. Times Bank Limited was merged with:
a)
HDFC Bank; b) Bank of India; c) Punjab
National Bank; d) Central Bank of India; e) none of the above
30. What do you mean by horizontal merger?
a)
Merger of two or more companies that
manufacture homogenous products;
b)
Merger of two or more companies that
manufacture heterogonous products;
c)
Merger of a principal company with its
subsidiary company
d)
All the above
e)
None of the above
ANSWERS:
TEST
NO: 002
|
1-B
|
2-C
|
3-D
|
4-A
|
5-B
|
6-C
|
7-D
|
8-A
|
9-B
|
10-C
|
|
11-C
|
12-B
|
13-C
|
14-D
|
15-D
|
16-A
|
17-C
|
18-C
|
19-D
|
20-A
|
|
21-D
|
22-B
|
23-D
|
24-D
|
25-C
|
26-A
|
27-E
|
28-C
|
29-A
|
30-A
|
No comments:
Post a Comment